The example song is in Am and with that I write out the scale in Cmaj so I can make sense of the chords in the song. The D would normally be D minor where the key is C major. So, is Griff saying the D/f# is a problem because its the 2 chord and should be a minor? And then, he changes the 2 chord into a 5 chord but just over one bar so it can be a major chord? So, if the D is the 5 chord, isn't the scale in G for that bar and the 5 chord D mixolydian? I'm not clear on why he he plays A Dorian over phrase 2.
Can I get any clarity around this?
Can I get any clarity around this?
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